[cc-community] Licenses and law interaction.
Javier Candeira
javier at candeira.com
Fri Nov 5 05:43:51 EDT 2010
On Fri, Nov 5, 2010 at 8:26 PM, Rob Myers <rob at robmyers.org> wrote:
> On 11/05/2010 01:00 AM, Javier Candeira wrote:
>>
>> If the translation is done by computer, it's not the work of an
>> author, but of a machine, therefore no copyright or authorship.
>
> It's the work of whoever causes the translation to be produced by the
> machine.
What I said is what a lawyer friend told me he would argue according
to Spanish law.
> In the UK, "computer generated" works qualify for 50 rather than 70 year
> copyrights:
>
> http://www.cardiff.ac.uk/insrv/copyright/index.html#4
Very interesting!
>> Yes, I wonder too about authorship in this case. What it would seem to
>> me is that, according to Spanish law, Google would have no rights of
>> authorship on the mechanical translation, and you would be right: all
>> copyright would still belong to the original holder.
>
> Under UK law the person using the tools that Google provide to produce the
> translation would be the person who would gain/violate copyright.
Now that's intriguing. Not Google's for making the difficult,
complicated program, but yours or mine for the effort of pushing a
button? Not arguing, mind you. Just interested.
> (I am not a lawyer, this is not legal advice, but it is an area I've
> discussed with lawyers.)
Same here. I am not a lawyer in any country, just a Spaniard with
lawyer friends.
J
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