[b-hebrew] Jer 1:5 K-Q question
davidlwashburn at gmail.com
Mon May 14 12:58:24 EDT 2012
On Mon, May 14, 2012 at 9:40 AM, Petr Tomasek <tomasek at etf.cuni.cz> wrote:
> On Mon, May 14, 2012 at 09:27:12AM -0700, Dave Washburn wrote:
> > While poking about in the first verses of Jeremiah, I came upon a Qere
> > I'm having trouble making sense of. The Ketiv is
> > )CWRK, while the Qere is )CRK. I have to wonder if the scribes are
> > suggesting a different word than YCR here, or if it's just a spelling
> > (plene) issue. My library suffers from a remarkable paucity of things
> > commentaries, so can you folks help out? If the Qere is a different
> > word/root, I can't seem to figure out what it is. And if it's just a
> > of plene spelling, I wonder why they thought it merited a marginal note.
> > Any assistance is greatly appreciated.
> > --
> > Dave Washburn
> Dear Dave,
> this is relatively common type of qerē-ketīv, namely one where the qerē
> has qāmeṣ ḥatūf while the ketīv writes ו. This seems to indicate that
> the scribes (who wrote the ketīv) understood qāmeṣ (ḥatūf) to be
> with the sound "o". See e.g. Deut 32:13; Josh 9:7; 1Sam 22:15; 28:8; 2Sam
> Isa 18:4; 26:20; 44:17; 58:14; (Jer 2:20); Jer 33:8; Ezek 4:6; 18:28;
> 24:2 etc.
> Interestingly, one finds such "plaene" writing for qāmeṣ (ḥatūf) already
> Qumran, see 1QIsa^a at Isa 18:4; 26:20; 44:17; (58:14).
> Petr Tomasek
> That was more or less what I thought, but it's been a long time since I
really spent any time in the Masorah, and I wanted to be sure I wasn't
missing a different verb there (which could change the whole character of
the passage). Thanks.
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