[b-hebrew] Plural of חֵרֵשׁ (deaf)
George.Athas at moore.edu.au
Thu Apr 7 20:50:50 EDT 2011
Pere Porta asked:
Why do you assume that the first sere should be reduced to hatef patah in your view?
Why not to hatef segol?
Would it not be more logical that a sere becomes hatef segol (and not hatef patah) when reduced?
Vowel reduction turns a qamets or sere into a shewa. If that shewa is beneath a guttural, it will usually become a hatef patah, since gutturals generally prefer A-class vowels. In any case, though, I'd still be comfortable with a hatef segol. My question is, why doesn't it?
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
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