[b-hebrew] Iabe equals Yahweh?
davedonnelly1
davedonnelly1 at juno.com
Fri Jan 15 15:10:52 EST 2010
Hi James,
Gesenius is thought to have based his proposed punctuation of YHWH
[yod-patah-heh-shewa-waw-segol-heh] on IaBe in about 1815 A.D., [possibly
because information of Clement's use of Iaoue seemed to be difficult to
document between 1300 A.D. and about 1885 A.D.]
An early 1900's Catholic Encyclopedia sort of indicates that an unknown
Hebrew Scholar [i.e. Gesenius]
placed the vowels of "IaBe" into YHWH to create his proposed Hebrew
punctuation, which transliterates very nicely into English as "Yahweh"
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James, have you researched evidence for Clement's use of Iaoue, which
seems to provide strong evidence for "Yahweh" IF THE EVIDENCE IS ACTUALLY
TRUE?
Clement of Alexandria is credited with writing that YHWH was called
"Iaoue" in about 190 A.D., but my research indicates that neither
William Smith's 1863 "A Dictionary of the Bible" was aware of this, [in
1863] nor was Gesenius aware of this in the early 1800's.
Then suddenly in about 1885-1905 Otto Stahlin apparently out of nowhere
writes a critical edition of Clements' Stromata Book V Chapter 6:34 and
provides all sorts of evidence showing that old catenas proved that
Clement wrote "Iaoue" and not "Iaou" .
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Dave Donnelly
Hi all,
because of recent discussion I've been giving a lot of thought to
Theodoret's transliteration of YHWH as Iabe. The more I think about it
the
more it would seem to me that this transliteration would better fit
YeHaWeH
than YaHWeH. I is often used where we see 'Ye' in Hebrew and as Greek has
no
way of representing the H consonant mid word the a may well stand for a
perceived 'Ha'. Greek B (pronounced V) comined with e standing for a
perceived 'Ve' and the final Hebrew H is left untransliterated as there
is
no way in Greek of placing a final H in Greek.
In any case, I looked into this further and Theodoret is actually quite
late. Considerably later than the other competing transliterations.
James Christian
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