Does anyone have any thoughts as to why the root YR$ (to possess, dispossess) takes a hireq vowel (rather than patah) after the resh in Deut 4.1 and 22? The form in both verses is Qal Weqatal 2mp: וִירִשְׁתֶּם — wiyri$tem. Regards, GEORGE ATHAS Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia) www.moore.edu.au