[b-hebrew] MLK (LM

JimStinehart at aol.com JimStinehart at aol.com
Tue Jun 9 09:55:17 EDT 2009


Karl:
 
A.  You wrote (in part):  “Eylam (YLM [is]…a proper noun, i.e. a name, 
referring to various people….”
 
Those “various people” are Hebrews.  That suggests that (YLM is a west 
Semitic word, being used as a west Semitic name for west Semitic-speaking 
people, namely various Hebrews.  For example, I Chronicles 26: 3 refers to a man 
named (YLM as being a Levite who was a contemporary of King David.  Wouldn’t 
a Levite in that time period be portrayed in the Bible as having a west 
Semitic name?
 
If (YLM is a west Semitic word, a Hebrew word, rather than being an exotic 
non-west Semitic foreign loanword, then isn’t the yod/Y a matres lectionis?  
Doesn’t (YLM clearly derive from the Biblical Hebrew verb (LM, which is the 
root?
 
If so, then (1) (YLM is a west Semitic word, and (2) the “defective” 
spelling of (YLM would be (LM.  If scholars are right that defective spelling 
preceded full spelling in Biblical Hebrew, then Genesis 14: 1, 9 originally 
likely referenced MLK (LM as Chedorlaomer’s title (using defective spelling).  
That is  i-d-e-n-t-i-c-a-l, letter for letter, to the grand title that was 
unique to kings of Ugarit.
 
That linguistic analysis strongly supports my view that Chedorlaomer is 
presented in chapter 14 of Genesis as being a king of Ugarit, not a king of 
far-off, irrelevant Elam.
 
B.  Outside of Genesis, there is no reference in the Bible to Elam as a 
country, prior to Isaiah.  Why would the Patriarchal narratives reference 
far-off, irrelevant Elam, east of southern Mesopotamia, when there is no 
reference to that irrelevant country in Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy, 
Joshua, Judges, Samuel or Kings?  No ruler of Elam ever came to the Northern 
Negev Desert!  (You and the scholars interpret Genesis 14: 7 as referencing 
the Northern Negev Desert, despite the fact that none of the five proper names 
at Genesis 14: 7 are attested in ancient secular history as being located 
anywhere near that locale, as opposed to all five such names being attested 
in northern Canaan in the Bronze Age.)  Why on earth would chapter 14 of 
Genesis be telling a story about a king of far-off Elam ravaging the Northern 
Negev Desert?  Is that a sensible theory of the case?  Is it just a “
coincidence” that (i) Chedoralomer’s title, MLK (LM, is the unique title of kings of 
Ugarit, and (ii) the name “Chedorlaomer” can easily be analyzed as being 
comprised of three common Ugaritic words?  KDR and L and (MR are all common 
Ugaritic words, as well as being common Hebrew words, too.  I see KDRL(MR and 
MLK and (LM [or (YLM] as all being virgin pure west Semitic words or names, 
with no exotic non-west Semitic loanwords being involved.  
 
If chapter 14 of Genesis is not late [that is, 8th century BCE or later], 
why would the Patriarchal narratives be talking about far-off, irrelevant 
Elam, a country with which the pre-8th century BCE Hebrews had no contact 
whatsoever?  And if Genesis 14: 1, 9 is trying to refer to 
NIM/hatalmtu/hatamtu/atamtu/KUR Elammatum/Elamtu, as scholars assert, then where oh where is that 
yod/Y coming from in (YLM?  Those foreign names have no yod/Y.  Using your 
knowledge of Biblical Hebrew, you can see that (YLM appears to be a form of 
the virgin pure Hebrew verb (LM, so (YLM itself is a virgin pure Hebrew 
noun/name.  (YLM is not an exotic non-west Semitic word.  [I agree with you, by 
the way, that (LM in Ugaritic had a slightly different meaning than its 
cognate (WLM in Biblical Hebrew.  (LM means “eternity” in Ugaritic.]  When later 
Biblical authors use (YLM to refer to a country, they use it in the sense 
of “a distant place”, based on the fact that one meaning of the Biblical 
Hebrew verb (LM is “to be distant”.  (LM, (YLM and (WLM are all virgin pure 
west Semitic/Biblical Hebrew words, in my opinion, having no hint whatsoever 
of foreign-ness.  
 
The later Biblical authors did not know that the phrase MLK (LM [(YLM] had 
been the unique title of Ugaritic kings. 
 
C.  In 5,000 years of human history, there was only one event comparable to 
the “four kings against the five” at Genesis 14: 9, where all four of the 
following key elements apply:
 
(1)  There were four (4) attacking rulers.
 
(2)  The four (4) attacking rulers utterly destroyed a league of five (5) 
defending rulers [“four kings against the five”].
 
(3)  The names of the four attacking rulers follow this precise pattern:  
(i) one is a Hittite kingly name, (ii) one is a Hurrian princeling name, and 
(iii) the other two names each make perfect sense as being composed of west 
Semitic words.  [All of these names are apt nicknames, not formal historical 
names, in chapter 14 of Genesis.  But the precise ethnicity of each 
name/nickname is exactly right.]
 
(4)  One of the west Semitic-speaking rulers had the unique historical 
title MLK (LM.
 
It only happened once in secular history, and west Semitic-speaking Ugarit 
was a key player.  It’s nicely recorded, for eternity, right there at 
Genesis 14: 1-11.
 
Why accept the view of university scholars that this is a tall tale about a 
fictional king of Elam fictionally rampaging through the Northern Negev 
Desert?  There’s nothing in secular history or linguistics to back up that 
strange, unconvincing view of the case.
 
But if we match the defective spelling MLK (LM to the unique, historical 
title of Ugaritic kings, MLK (LM, then we can quickly discern the solid 
secular historical basis for the “four kings against the five” at Genesis 14: 
1-11.  No scholar has ever looked to Late Bronze Age northern Canaan in 
analyzing the Patriarchal narratives.  That’s why all scholars have missed this 
key, letter-for-letter match:
 
MLK (LM.
 
Jim Stinehart
Evanston, Illinois

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