[b-hebrew] barak (bless? curse?) in the Book of Job
Yigal Levin
leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il
Tue Jan 27 23:03:11 EST 2009
Dear John,
Please remember that the list rules state that all posts must be signed with
the writer's full name.
Yigal Levin
co-mederator
b-hebrew
----- Original Message -----
From: "John Estell" <oldearther at yahoo.com>
To: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 at earthlink.net>;
<b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, January 28, 2009 2:23 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] barak (bless? curse?) in the Book of Job
>
> Harold,
>
> I'm not quite following what you are saying. What did Satan mean by "to
> your face"?
>
>
>
>
> ________________________________
> From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard3 at earthlink.net>
> To: "b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Tuesday, January 27, 2009 4:28:56 PM
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] barak (bless? curse?) in the Book of Job
>
> John ,
>> Young's Literal Translation renders Job 1:11 as such: The work of his
>> hands Thou hast blessed, and his substance hath spread in the land, and
>> yet, put forth, I pray Thee, Thy hand, and strike against anything that
>> he hath -- if not: to Thy face he doth bless Thee!'
>>
>> I understand that most translations translated barak as "curse" in this
>> verse, as well as in Job 1:5, 2:5, and 2:9. However, does the usual sense
>> of "to bless" make sense in this context?
>>
>> Might Satan be asking God a question that if He put forth His hand
>> against Job
>> will Job bless God to His face? Or in 2:5, might Satan have been telling
>> God to put forth His hand and touch all Job has in order to see if he
>> will still bless God?
>>
>
> HH: No, it does not seem to work. The "if not" is a veiled oath formula,
> so Satan is swearing that Job will bless God to his face. And really,
> what does "to your face" mean with "bless"?
>
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard
>>
>
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