[b-hebrew] Vowel Subsitution
tedbro at aol.com
tedbro at aol.com
Sat Dec 26 07:33:34 EST 2009
Doug:
Right! The verse and its context are Messianic. I'm not sure what bearing
it has, however, on the vocalization of YHWH. When Jeremiah says, "He will
be called..."? Do you understand that the name would necessarily be
pronounced as written?
If so, one problem with that interpretation is the source of the
pronunciation. We all agree that the consonantal text is much older than the vowels,
right? The text of Jeremiah is commonly dated to the early 6th century
BCE. The vowels were added by the Massoretes somewhere in the range of 1,000
years later. The questions are: a) Did the Massoretes know Jeremiah's
intended pronunciation? and b) Even if they did, was the way they inserted vowels
into the text influenced by the tradition against pronouncing the name?
Holiday Cheers All Around,
Ted Brownstein
In a message dated 12/26/2009 4:53:59 A.M. Eastern Standard Time,
dbelot at bigpond.net.au writes:
Would you not think that in this passage in Jeremiah...
Jer 23:6 And in His days Judah will be saved and Israel will dwell
safely,
Now this is His name by which He wil becalled YHWH Our righteousness.
Surely this is referring to the comming Messiah , thats what all Rabbai's
I
have contacted seem to think , so when this Messiah comes , will he not be
called by this name?
What else could it mean .
doug belot
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