[b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21
furuli at online.no
Wed Apr 22 05:40:34 EDT 2009
I do not understand your question. Please rephrase it, and I will answer it.
University of Oslo
>On Tue, Apr 21, 2009 at 10:32 PM, Rolf Furuli wrote:
>> Dear Yizhak,
>> The onus of definition is on the one who uses a particular term. I
>> have never used the terms "general action" and "specific action," but
>> you have used them, so they should mean something to you. I do not
>> find the terms in David Crystal's "Dictionary of Linguistics and
>> Phonetics," so I challenge you to show that the terms are meaningful
>> linguistic terms.
>I really think your posts today, taken together, speak for themselves.
>I agree with you the onus of definition is on the one who uses a
>particular term. However, I was only using the terms you posed
>in your question. I do not have a dictionary of linguistics nor did
>I use one to discern the meaning of the term in your question. I
>used basic knowledge of english, just like I did when I picked its
>antonym ("general"). If my terms do not make sense to you, then
>you should rephrase your question. Why pose a question in this
>particular phrasing if this particular phrasing makes no sense to
>you? Anyway, I was only trying to help by giving an answer.
>However, the whole thing raises a different question for me, that I
>hope you can answer. Here you have, according to your first post
>today, an analysis of all the 80,000 verbs in Classical Hebrew.
>Why then of the whole 80,000 verbs, did you pick a particular one
>for which it is clear that the textual history is complex, and which
>may simply be a scribal error for wbnyw "and his sons"?
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