[b-hebrew] About Dagesh's
pporta at oham.net
pporta at oham.net
Sat May 24 00:20:55 EDT 2008
I would say:
1. In a general way:
--'be' and 'kol' usually take dagesh when the preceding syllable has a
consonantal final sound: Gn 1:15; Dt 29:1; Lv 2:16, Js 2:18... (hundreds of
occurrences)
--They take no dagesh when the preceding syllable has final vowel sound: 2Sa
20:2; 1K 18:26; 2Ch 28:17; Lv 10:3; Js 4:1... (many occurrences)
2. But there are several exceptions to this rule. I do not know whether
there is some "rule" governing these exceptions. Namely... is there a "rule"
telling which are the cases where the general rule does not apply? Maybe
someone in the list knows. I do not know.
Greetings.
Pere Porta
Barcelona (Catalonia, Spain)
___________
> I have noticed some strange occurences of words that do not use a Dagesh
> where it would expect one; specifically, the preposition 'be' [in] and
> 'kol' [all], which were both written as 've' and 'chol' [i.e no dagesh].
>
> This came up in Exodus 12:12 ;
>
> ' Ve'avarti VE'eretz mitzrayim ba'lailah hazeh, ve-hikeiti
> CHOL-bechor....'
>
> I was wondering if anybody could explain why the usual dagesh-ed form is
> not used!
>
> Thanks a lot!
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