[b-hebrew] YD) used absolutely

pporta at oham.net pporta at oham.net
Thu Feb 14 11:45:31 EST 2008


In Is 43:10 we find the word TD)W, of verb YD), used absolutely, without a 
complement or object of any kind.

[I do not think that LY that comes after WT(MYNW is the object of TD)W]

Now, I remark that when translated it is often translated together with next 
words "WT(MYNW LY" this way: "so that you know and believe me"

That is to say: "(I chose you so that) you know me and believe me".

I ask: is this translation right?
To have "to know me" there should be the pronoun (WTY, me, after TD)W, 
should it not?

If I'm right, what can be the true sense of TD)W used absolutely, without 
any object?

Regards.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Catalonia, Spain)




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