[b-hebrew] Is YaH:WeH derived from IaBe or Iaoue or "Other"?
David P Donnelly
davedonnelly1 at juno.com
Thu Aug 24 08:13:11 EDT 2006
http://img.villagephotos.com/p/2003-7/264290/YahwehfromSmithsBibleDiction
arylowres.JPG
At the link above from Smiths 1863 A Dictionary of the Bible, Smith
notes how Gesenius had punctuated YHWH as YaH:WeH.
http://img.villagephotos.com/p/2003-7/264290/yahwehfromiabe660pixels.JPG
At the link above from Smiths 1863 A Dictionary of the Bible, Smith
presents his opinion that the scholarly reconstruction YaH:WeH was
supposed to have been represented by the Iabe of Epiphanius.
It should be noted that in 1863 Smith would have translated YaH:WeH as
Yahveh not Yahweh
Note that in 1863, Smith believed that Clement of Alexandria had written
Iaou not Iaoue.
Do any b-Hebrew member have any evidence that Gesenius was influenced by
either IaBe or Iaoue when he proposed the punctuation YaH:WeH?
Is it possible that Gesenius created the punctuation YaH:Weh strictly
from his knowledge of Hebrew grammar rules?
Is YaH:WeH an accurate translation of Iaoue, or is it necessary to
engage in scholarly speculation to translate Iaoue as YaH:WeH? Many
scholarly sources merely state that Iaoue favors the translation
Yahweh.
Dave Donnelly
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