[b-hebrew] Phinehas & Peleg - pe > phi
MarjorieAlley at cs.com
MarjorieAlley at cs.com
Mon Sep 19 20:39:58 EDT 2005
Dr. Peter Kirk wrote:
>>> True, but we are almost certain that phi was an aspirated plosive, at
least in classical times - perhaps not quite so certain for LXX times. <<<
Would you mind clarifying this for me? Are you saying that you do not
necessarily agree with Dr. Hoffman that the LXX's "phi" in Pinchas/Phineas
represented a Hebrew pronunciation which differed from the later Massoretic
pronunciation?
You're saying that the phi might have been an aspirated plosive ( a "p"
rather than an "f" ) when the LXX was written?
Thank you,
Marjorie Alley
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