mabernathy at isot.com
Mon Sep 19 11:04:12 EDT 2005
Assuming that we are unlikely to find any 3000 year old Hebrews who can
tell us whether our theories are correct or not, what options are
available to us for determining how tenses were understood?
Should any examination of this question assume uniformity throughout the
history of the language or would it be necessary to consider the
probable time of authorship?
Can we get past a working theory using just linguistic analysis of
What are the limits of what we can learn from ancient translations? I
should think that one problem in trying to determine how the author of
Exodus used tenses from translations is that these translations were
made after the language was influsenced by the Aramaic language. The
usage may not be the same in the two time periods. I should also think
that one would have to consider who the translation was written for and
why it was written. If we give any credence to the traditions concerning
the LXX, then it was written by Hebrews who were somewhat isolated from
other speakers of the Hebrew language. This raises questions about
whether their dialect had shifted from the standard.
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