[b-hebrew] "Shaf`el" in Hebrew?
kwrandolph at email.com
Tue Feb 1 20:37:07 EST 2005
Judges 5:7 is not a clear example to point to for the Shafel form. I have always read it as (D )$R [verb] phrase which means until the action specified by the verb happens. But in the poetic form, the )$R is shortened to a prefixed $-. The (D )$R is spelled out in over 40 verses in Tanakh.
Karl W. Randolph.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir at gmail.com>
> Thank you for all the above. This was very useful. Interestingly,
> Rabin does not credit Soggin and Wachter does not credit Rabin or
> Soggin. Rabin does seem to mention that it was a suggestion by
> Albright in 1945, and perhaps it was Albright's influence that led to
> all of these. Soggin's piece in _Old_Testament_and_Oriental_
> _Studies_ is a translation of his original Italian. It was very useful to
> me. On page 190, and later, on page 201 n. 34, he presents the case
> that shaqqamti in Judges 5:7 is of Shafel form. I had
> presented this on ANE a few months back, but since then could not
> find substantiation for it anywhere. Rabin seems to claim that the
> words are borrowed from "Amorite" and Soggin seems to claim it is
> based on Akkadian influence on Hebrew, Amorite, etc. He also
> points out that unlike the suggestion I made above, Ugaritic has a
> Shafel but third person "h" pronouns. Also, points were made
> regarding, for example, Amarna having a mainly h- form causative,
> but also smaller amounts of $-form causatives.
> The sentence in his book is ambiguous on that point just like the
> English translation: "The Shafel form disappears and Haphel (which
> became Hiphil) becomes the only causative." If you remove the
> parenthesis, you do get that meaning, but it's ambiguous as it
> Yitzhak Sapir
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