[b-hebrew] karu or ka'ari (Ps 22:16) ?
uhurwitz at yahoo.com
Tue Apr 26 13:18:30 EDT 2005
Jim asked a reasonable question,about normalization of BH spelling and mentioned the 'late' normalization of German . He could have come much closed home, both in time and liunguistically, to the era of Hardy in England. Peter may correct here, but it's my understanding that there still were spelling variations in England in his time.
Back to BH -- there was discussion of the spelling of biblical quotes in the Mishnah and Talmud on the list before. In general this is the spelling of the MT text, without the vocalization of course. I say "genrally" because slight differences existed and exist to this day.
Jim West <jwest at highland.net> wrote:
Peter Kirk wrote:
> At the time of the DSS this would have been a normal spelling -
This raises a question that I have never heard satisfactorily answered-
to wit, when was spelling "normalized" in Hebrew texts? Or for that
matter, in Greek texts as well. I ask because I read a lot of stuff
from the Reformation and even as late as the mid 1500's German had no
"normalized" orthographical system. It stands to reason that if
orthography wasn't normalized when the printing press existed, it
wouldn't be before that time. So I ask- when was Hebrew spelling
"normailzed"? And bibliography would be helpful (so I can check up to
see if you are telling the truth). ;-)
Biblical Studies Resources - http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog - http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com
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