[b-hebrew] Almah vs. Bethulah in Isaiah 7
peterkirk at qaya.org
Sat Apr 2 09:51:56 EST 2005
On 02/04/2005 15:15, Evgeny Ivanov wrote:
>It's interesting that the argument of early christians
>was exactly the opposite - the Is.7.14 is a message of
It is certainly a prophecy, but of events to occur within the next five
years or so.
As for how Matthew used this verse in the New Testament, and the
subsequent Christian use of this verse: In Matthew chapters 1-2 Matthew
uses several Hebrew Bible passages e.g. Hosea 11:1, Jeremiah 31:15 in
ways which sometimes cannot possibly be the original prophet's intention
when writing. And I am sure that Matthew did not intend to indicate the
original meaning of the prophecy; for example, surely he understood that
in 11:1 Hosea was referring to the nation of Israel rather than to the
Messiah. Rather, when Matthew writes e.g. "All this took place to fulfil
what the Lord has said through the prophet", his concept of "fulfil" was
much richer than that a specific prediction had come true, but rather
that some deeper underlying significance of the prophecy had been
fulfilled in the coming (as he saw it) of the Messiah.
In other words, in the Jewish terminology which John Leys used,
Matthew's use of these passages is more drash than pshat.
>>However, the author draws no particular
>>attention to this amazing fact
>"For this reason the sovereign master himself will
>give you a confirming sign". If the message is just a
>routine birth by a young women, then what is this
>phophesy about, what is the sign?
The sign, surely, is that a particular young women will have a son - not
in itself miraculous, but perhaps noteworthy. And the prophecy is not
only this but that before the child grows up the land of two kings will
be laid waste.
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
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