[b-hebrew] Proverbs 5:16 - a declaration or a question ?
kwrandolph at email.com
Thu Dec 30 14:29:49 EST 2004
It is precisely because I had difficulty with the traditional meaning that I even considered a different reading. That is why I asked if there is a grammatical reason not to read it as such, not what does tradition say. By tradition, I include the Masoritic pointing.
There is no grammatical indication that this is a question.
The context indicates that a man should be looking at his wife only, not at other women, which should be dispersed from his eyes. My reading keeps the grammar as standard instead of changing to a grammatically non-standard question and fits the context. Is there any grammatical point that I overlook?
Karl W. Randolph.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard at ont.com>
> Dear Karl,
> > The verb is plural third person, but the subject is PLGY MYM.
> > M(YNTYK cannot be the subject, as it has a prefixed M- short for
> > MN which can never be the subject of the verb.
> HH: It only has a prefixed MN in your interpretation. You know that
> you are ignoring the standard meaning for the term given in all
> translations I've seen. So why push such obscurantist logic? The
> word means "spring," and the M is part of the noun, not a prefix.
> Harold Holmyard
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