[b-hebrew] Mark 15:34, Mat 27:46, & Psalm 22
06PETERSON at cua.edu
Tue Apr 20 10:25:34 EDT 2004
>===== Original Message From Peter Kirk <peterkirk at qaya.org> =====
>But would the
>Aramaic first person possessive suffix ever be -i?
>And if the same vowel
>shift had occurred, would there not be O's (omicrons) rather than A's
>(alphas) in "lama sabachtani"?
Not all of them, since the shift outside of Phoenician doesn't seem to have
affected short-a. Also, as I said, the contact with Hebrew could have played a
role. If the shift was in its early stages, the well-known Hebrew form elohim
could have had an influence in speeding the change with this particular word.
I think we also have to question how well Greek writers and/or scribes were
able to render the Aramaic sounds. If the sound was somewhere between /a/ and
/o/, and elohim was already familiar, I would think it much easier to drift
toward the /o/ end in rendering it.
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