Fw: [b-hebrew] LORD
John N Carras
har1marjohn at juno.com
Thu Feb 13 13:46:21 EST 2003
Does it make sense to consider a difference of YHWH as opposed to Lord
found in Hebrew at Psa. 110:1 and then quoted in Acts 2:34? Would not
Hebrew word-language indicate a difference between YHWH and the second
instance of Lord in the Psalm?
--------- Forwarded message ----------
From: "Walter R. Mattfeld" <mattfeld12 at charter.net>
To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Date: Sat, 8 Feb 2003 08:43:47 -0500
Subject: [b-hebrew] LORD
Message-ID: <000a01c2cf78$1b280d30$594dbd42 at yourus67pi6luv>
"Translators should put in YHWH, IMO
because otherwise CHristian readers tend to think
it's Jesus the text is talking about !"
I am "confused" by the logic of your statement. Surely you are aware that
Christians understand that it was Christ who made the world in 6 days and
rested on the 7th day, and that it was Christ who appeared to Moses at
Sinai giving the Law to Israel ? So, why would it make any difference
whether a word is translated YHWH or not for Christian interpreters of
Old Testament ?
Walter Reinhold Warttig Mattfeld, M.A. Ed.
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
More information about the b-hebrew