[b-hebrew] LORD

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Wed Feb 12 11:44:57 EST 2003


In a message dated 2/12/2003 11:31:11 AM Eastern Standard Time, 
Awohili at aol.com writes:

> I often wonder why the writer of Revelation used the vocabulary of the 
> Tehillim in incorporating "Hallelu-yah" in his book.  Was it mere 
> embellishment, or an acknowledgement of the Name even at that late date?
> 

And why should he not incorporate it?  To my knowledge the use of the 
theophoric nominal element in this word has never been excluded from Jewish 
worship.  Please correct me if I err regarding this, but I would think that 
in my visits to the synagogue I would have noted its absence.  The Psalms are 
not loath to use it.

gfsomsel


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