Exodus 6:11 and 7:2
andy_warren at sil.org
Thu Nov 21 09:12:57 EST 2002
> The first is an indirect volitive: "speak . . . so that he sends . . . "
> is a prime situation for an indirect volitive--imperative directed to one
> person, jussive with a different subject.
> The second can't be an indirect volitive, because the form that precedes
> not a volitive form (jussive, imperative, cohortative). Like any other
> converted perfect, it continues the force of the preceding non-narrative
> (in this case imperfect): "he will speak . . . and he will send . . . "
> imperfect can have an obligative mood, as it probably does here, but it
> still be distinguished from a true volitive form. As such, it cannot be
> continued by an indirect volitive.)
> That might give you a different translation, but I can see where it might
> I'm not sure that anyone's come up with a good way to translate the
> with obligative force. (Any suggestions?)
Funnily enough, I read it exactly the opposite way round!
6:11 Go in - speak to Pharaoh, king of Egypt, and he will have to let the
Israelites leave his country.
(normal yiqtol long-form [not jussive] with modal force of future obligation
[epistemic modality]. 3rd-person jussives can only be used in addressing a
potential agent/causer - you can say to God, "May my enemies be put to
shame!" (because God has the power to effect this), but not to Moses, "May
Pharaoh release the Israelites" (because Moses has no power to make this
7:2 You must speak everything I command you, and Aaron your brother must
speak to Pharaoh such that he lets the Israelites leave his country.
(weqatal is the normal form for a purpose clause [deontic modality])
As for 'imperfect with obligative force' (what others call the 'preceptive
imperfect') as in the Decalogue and elsewhere, what's wrong with English
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