Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew
Ausra Pazeraite
akp at centras.lt
Tue Jan 30 01:14:07 EST 2001
I doubt if Matthew o Luke read Isaiah in Hebrew. That's a question for b-greekers, not for b-hebrew folk...
Ausra
>No doubt the question why Matthew read Isaiah 7:14 in the way he did, is
>interesting. However, in that case we are dealing with the "historyof
>interpretation", some 700 years after Isaiah spoke these words, and
>notwith philology. It seems more appropriate to follow Jonathan's
>suggestion to read the text first in context (litteral and historical):
>Isaiah promised a sign to Ahaz, so if Isaiah would have referred
>exclusively to a messiah 700 years later, it was a pity for Ahaz but he
>never would have seen thepromise being fulfilled. It stands to reason
>that Isaiah's words were meantto have a message for the people of his
>own time....
>
>Raymond
>
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