Language code switching in Daniel
dwashbur at nyx.net
Mon Dec 31 14:30:51 EST 2001
I don't recall anyone (especially me) saying they were.
> How can both the LXX and the MT be inerrent
> when they differ?
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Dave Washburn [mailto:dwashbur at nyx.net]
> > Sent: Mon, December 31, 2001 11:33 AM
> > To: Biblical Hebrew
> > Subject: Re: Language code switching in Daniel
> > [snip]
> > > On another issue, how can one possibly erect a theory of
> > inerrancy for the
> > > LXX based upon a quotation of Jesus in the NT? All the direct
> > quotations of
> > > his words are in Aramaic, non?
> > [snip]
> > Non. First of all, the quotation mentioned was in Hebrews, not in
> > the gospels. Second, it's clear that Jesus must have spoken Greek as
> > well as Aramaic since we have numerous examples where he spoke to non-
> > Jews such as a Roman centurion, a Syrophonecian woman, and the Roman
> > procurator. Where it's clear he spoke Aramaic, the Aramaic words are
> > transliterated into Greek characters, and they're only snippets.
> > Given the commonness of a mixed audience, it seems more likely that
> > he spoke Greek most of the time. But even assuming otherwise, the
> > Hebrews quotation has nothing to do with it.
> > Dave Washburn
> > http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
> > This time, like all times, is a very good one if we but know what to
> > do with it.
> > -Emerson
> > ---
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This time, like all times, is a very good one if we but know what to
do with it.
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