Theodore H. Mann
theomann at earthlink.net
Wed Dec 26 11:54:30 EST 2001
Many thanks for the response.
Which is clear and straightforward, "us" or "him?" Also, do you have any
thoughts as to why translations differ on this? For example: KJV, NASB,
ESV have "us": NRSV, TEV, NIV have "him," although NRSV and TEV include a
footnote allowing "us" as a possibility. I gather from the NRSV footnote
that it has something to do with what version of the OT is used as the
> It's so clear and straighforward, none of the commentaries I have here to
> look at, even discuss it.
> > Greetings good friends:
> > It has been pointed out to me that the last part of Hosea 12:4 is
> > translated into English as "And there He spoke with us," and sometimes as
> > "And there He spoke with him." Why the difference, and which is correct?
> > Many thanks.
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