Jerusalem, neuter plural
ronning at nis.za
Sun Sep 5 14:50:22 EDT 1999
Let me rephrase my statement so you don't miss my point.
The YOD in dual endings is not a MATER (therefore not optional) - the YOD is
missing from the ending of YERUSHALAYIM in more than 99% of the cases.
Therefore, the pronunciation of Jerusalem in OT times was not with a dual
ending, but is a later contrivance. This conclusion is reinforced by the LXX
transliteration plus the Aramaic spelling YERUSHALEM.
Do you have another explanation (as opposed to a simple reassertion of your
certitude based on facts you feel no need to share with the rest of us)?
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