lewreich at javanet.com
Wed Nov 10 01:10:22 EST 1999
I would like to thank Peter Kirk for his gracious and well-reasoned
post, which quickly convinced me that I had misunderstood the
purpose of Dr. Pound's question about "jot or tittle of the Law" in
Matthew 5:18. The subject is indeed appropriate for discussion on
On 8 Nov 99, at 0:11, Peter Kirk wrote:
> Dear Lewis,
> I know you didn't mean to send this item to the list. But since I saw
> it, I want to protest at the grounds for rejecting this message.
> Dr. Pound's main question is:
> "In Matthew 5:18 Jesus refereed to one jot or one tittle of the Law.
> I suppose this has been presented many, many times, but if these items
> do not refer to some vocalization points, what do they refer unto?"
> This is a question not about the Greek Bible, but is about an apparent
> reference to pointing in the Hebrew Bible in use in Palestine in the
> first century....
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