[B-Greek] hO KURIOS TO PNEUMA - subject or predicate?
bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com
Sat Feb 13 09:43:24 EST 2010
Assuming your take concerning this example is correct, (I tend to agree with you) do you or anyone else know of some other examples in the GNT (or other writings) where we have a predicate that is not anarthrous? The reason I ask is Chrysostom also uses context to determine his view. He says,
"'Now the Spirit is the Lord.' This too is Lord, he says. And that you may know that he is speaking of the Paraclete, he added, 'And where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.' For surely you will not assert, that he says, 'And where the Lord of the Lord is...'"
It would be nice to see other similar examples in the GNT (if there are any) in order to see how context determines the answer in those cases. Thanks for the input.
From: Stephen Carlson <stemmatic at gmail.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Fri, February 12, 2010 10:22:41 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] hO KURIOS TO PNEUMA - subject or predicate?
On Fri, Feb 12, 2010 at 5:07 PM, Blue Meeksbay <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com> wrote:
> hO DE KURIOS TO PNEUMA ESTIN· OU DE TO PNEUMA KURIOU, ELEUQERIA
> II Cor. 3:17
> Another question about the II Cor. 3 passage ... Is there any way to know with certainty
>if hO KURIOS is the subject and TO PNEUMA is the predicate, or if TO PNEUMA is the
>subject and hO KURIOS the predicate? I believe Chrysostom held to the later.
I'm not sure "certainty" is the proper goal for exegesis, but, as a
general matter, the subject refers to the old information and the
predicate to new information (old and new with respect to the
context). Since the Lord was just mentioned in the previous sentence
and the Spirit was not (but is so later on), I would expect hO KURIOS
to be the subject and TO PNEUMA to be in the predicate.
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