[B-Greek] 2 Thess 2:15
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Dec 30 12:32:08 EST 2010
Ἄρα οὖν, ἀδελφοί, στήκετε καὶ κρατεῖτε τὰς παραδόσεις ἃς ἐδιδάχθητε εἴτε διὰ
λόγου εἴτε διʼ ἐπιστολῆς ἡμῶν.
ARA OUN, ADELFOI, STHKETE KAI KRATEITE TAS PARADOSEIS hAS EDIDAXQHTE EITE DIA
LOGOU EITE DI' EPISTOLHS hHMWN.
It is generally understood that mentioning an item with an article indicates
that the subject is known to the reader. Whether one can therefore say that
when there is an absence of an article it indicates an item which is not known
to the reader might be a bit questionable. In this case I would think that
while it does not point to any specific letter (despite the fact that this is
known as 2nd Thess), but rather it must be understood in the same way that DIA
LOGOU is to be understood. It is not some specific statement to which reference
is made but rather to whatever ORAL tradition he may have imparted. So DI'
EPISTOLHS would reference any written communication.
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
From: "Ehrman, Bart D" <behrman at email.unc.edu>
To: "b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thu, December 30, 2010 10:12:55 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] 2 Thess 2:15
In his commentary on 2 Thessalonians, W. Marxsen claims that since 2:15 εἴτε
δι' ἐπιστολὴς ἡμῶν lacks an article (as in εἴτε δι' τῆς ἐπιστολὴς ἡμῶν) it does
not refer back to a specific letter (e.g., to 1 Thessalonians) but is meant in a
general sense to refer to any ole letter that he may have written (or not). If
he had wanted to refer to 1 Thessalonians in particular, he would have used the
article. I’m interested in the grammatical question. What do y’all think?
n Bart Ehrman
Bart D. Ehrman
James A. Gray Professor
Department of Religious Studies
University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill
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