[B-Greek] question regarding 1 Tim 6:10
rngrogers at embarqmail.com
Sun Apr 4 00:45:11 EDT 2010
Pardon me for waiting until now to respond to this thread. Rob, I
feel your concerns and yet those threads I'm not interested in or
seem to go nowhere I skim at best and sometimes ignore
completely. I always enjoy Iver's comments even though he seems
to approach exegesis a little different than I. I seem to be able
to see how Iver makes sense with his methodology where I have
trouble understanding others.
Mark, you might have a point with your Asthma example but I'm
not positive we have apples and apples here. I also do not
believe Paul meant "A root of all evil" and I do not believe that
is what the text says. As we all know, the text says what the
text says in it's context. Scripture reveals that there are other
causes of evil other than the love of money. That is why I reject
Wallace's first three options of interpretation. Yes they are
grammatical options but when placed in the context of 1 Tim 6:10
they fail to be true propositions.
Yancy, this is what I tried to say in my previous message to you.
I'm not sure I was plain enough. I hope you can see that I did
not ignore the options #1-#3 but rejected them because of the
context they would be placed in. Also, I do not believe I have
ignored or rejected any cultural context that would impact the
translation of this verse. I have no doubt that you disagree with
my approach but to say that I ignored grammar or any kind of
context I don't think I have. I am open to examination though and
have always been interested in the author's original meaning.
----- Original Message -----
From: <RRedden604 at aol.com>
To: <iver_larsen at sil.org>; <rngrogers at embarqmail.com>;
<b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, April 03, 2010 11:12 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] question regarding 1 Tim 6:10
Sorry to complain but some threads are just belabored to death.
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