[B-Greek] question regarding 1 Tim 6:10

Rod Rogers rngrogers at embarqmail.com
Sun Apr 4 00:45:11 EDT 2010


Pardon me for waiting until now to respond to this thread. Rob, I 
feel your concerns and yet those threads I'm not interested in or 
seem to go nowhere I skim at best and sometimes ignore 
completely. I always enjoy Iver's comments even though he seems 
to approach exegesis a little different than I. I seem to be able 
to see how Iver makes sense with his methodology where I have 
trouble understanding others.

 Mark, you might have a point with your Asthma example but I'm 
not positive we have apples and apples here. I also do not 
believe Paul meant "A root of all evil" and I do not believe that 
is what the text says. As we all know, the text says what the 
text says in it's context. Scripture reveals that there are other 
causes of evil other than the love of money. That is why I reject 
Wallace's first three options of interpretation. Yes they are 
grammatical options but when placed in the context of 1 Tim 6:10 
they fail to be true propositions.

Yancy, this is what I tried to say in my previous message to you. 
I'm not sure I was plain enough. I hope you can see that I did 
not ignore the options #1-#3 but rejected them because of the 
context they would be placed in. Also, I do not believe I have 
ignored or rejected any cultural context that would impact the 
translation of this verse. I have no doubt that you disagree with 
my approach but to say that I ignored grammar or any kind of 
context I don't think I have. I am open to examination though and 
have always been interested in the author's original meaning.

rod rogers
bargersville, in



----- Original Message ----- 
From: <RRedden604 at aol.com>
To: <iver_larsen at sil.org>; <rngrogers at embarqmail.com>; 
<b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, April 03, 2010 11:12 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] question regarding 1 Tim 6:10


Sorry to complain but some threads are just belabored to death.

Rob Redden






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