[B-Greek] Can QEOS grammatically be used in apposition to MONOGENHS in John 1:18?
bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com
Tue Nov 3 14:54:39 EST 2009
I am a new subscriber. Please forgive me if I am not following correct protocol. I tried to make sure this email followed the proper etiquette posted on your home page. I read an article, http://www.christianitytoday.com/bc/2002/sepoct/2.25.html, that states the following,
“In other instances, changes in the translation reflect a difference in judgment regarding how to punctuate the Greek text. In John 1:18 (monogenes theos) both the 1973 (‘God the only Son’) and 1984 (‘God the One and Only’) versions of the NIV understand monogenes (‘only’ or ‘unique’) as an adjective modifying the noun theos. The TNIV places a comma between the two terms (understanding monogenes as an adjective functioning as a noun, with theos in apposition with it): ‘the one and only Son, who is himself God.’”
If QEOS was to be used in apposition to MONOGENHS in this verse, would not it have normally been used in a relative clause or, perhaps, have been preceded by a pronoun, as “Saviour” is preceded by “our,” in “God our Saviour” in Jude 1:25? Then it would read “the One and Only, our God.” Or if MONOGENHS is supposed to be viewed as a substantive, would not it have been normal to write QEOS with the definite article as is commonly done in the LXX (e.g. Lord God – KURIOSO QEOS)? If John wants us to view QEOS in apposition to MONOGENHS, it seems he is using an unusual construction. It seems the simple translation would be to understand MONOGENHS as an adjective modifying “QEOS,” as was done in the earlier NIV versions. Are there any thoughts as to this issue, or are there any other examples by any other writers who use a construction like this, but in a verse with less ambiguity?
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