[B-Greek] Special use of the dative James 4:17
mark at markcain.com
Thu Nov 20 08:02:37 EST 2008
Dative of disadvantage?
EIDOTI OUN KALON POIEIN KAI MH POIOUNTI hAMARTIA AUTW ESTIN James 4:17
I was discussing this passage with a friend the other day and his take on this passage is that "hAMARTIA AUTW ESTIN" uses not a true dative in the sense of the indirect object, but a dative of advantage - disadvantage. I wasn't sure and had to do some research -- but it seems that the dative of dis/advantage occurs mostly around verbs of buying, selling, depriving and motion.
What do you think? Is this a special use of the dative, or is it simple the indirect object? Is there a general grammatical rule for the use of EIMI + dative?
Sarasota, FL USA
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