[B-Greek] kingdom?

Sarah Madden sarah.r.madden at gmail.com
Wed Dec 31 09:45:46 EST 2008


Maybe the confusion is with the words BASILEUS versus BASILEIA -- my
understanding is that an ending of -US indicates the person that goes with
the concept. It also seems that an ending of -EIA is a non-concrete noun
such as "kingdom." So the person would be the king (BASILEUS) and the
concept would be the kingdom (BASILEIA).
Sarah
sarah.r.madden at gmail.com

On Wed, Dec 31, 2008 at 8:37 AM, Barry <nebarry at verizon.net> wrote:

>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Barry Ickes" <barryickes at hotmail.com>
> To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Wednesday, December 31, 2008 8:07 AM
> Subject: [B-Greek] kingdom?
>
>
> >
> >
> > I would appreciate any or all of you to explain why the word 'kingdom' is
> > the translation of the word
> > 'βασιλεία' in the vast majority of versions?
>
> Because that's what it means?
>
> N.E. Barry Hofstetter
>
> Fecisti nos ad te et inquietum est cor nostrum, donec requiescat in te...
>    -- Augustine, Confessions 1:1
>
> http://mysite.verizon.net/nebarry/
> http://my.opera.com/BarryHofstetter/blog/
>
> ---
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-- 
Sarah ><>
sarah.r.madden at gmail.com
work: 301.429.8189


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