[B-Greek] Antecedent of an indefinite pronoun
Rod Rogers
rngrogers at embarqmail.com
Mon Dec 22 10:26:21 EST 2008
Carl, sorry for my brief and probably poorly
stated question. First of all I left out the
verse I was considering hoping that I could
get an unbiased, purely grammatical, answer.
Sometimes when we place a grammatical
construction in a biblical verse we have the
tendency to try to protect our theology first
and then worry about the grammar. I thought
you would appreciate going about it this way.
I think your Galatians 1:9 will do, but if
not I will reveal the verse I was thinking
about. My question has to do with the
possibility of an indefinite pronoun, TIS
having an antecedent that is a personal (I
probably mistakenly called it a definite)
pronoun hHMEIS or hUMEIS. In Galatians 1:9 my
question would be, Can TIS refer back to
hHMEIS in verse 8? I don't think so, at least
not directly. I think by nature of the
indefinite pronoun it can not have a personal
pronoun as it's antecedent but I want the
input of those on this list on this.
ALLA KAI EAN hHMEIS H AGGELOS EX OURANOU
EUAGGELIZHTAI hUMIN PAR O EUHGGELISAMEQA
hUMIN ANAQEMA ESTW
hOSTIS AN TOIAUTA PRATTHi, hOUTOS ANAQEMA
ESTW
rod rogers
Bargersville, In
----- Original Message -----
From: Carl W. Conrad
To: Rod Rogers
Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Monday, December 22, 2008 7:37 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Antecedent of an
indefinite pronoun
You might have stated what it is you have in
mind -- a specific verse?
I'm guessing something like this:
ὅστις ἂν τοιαύτα πράττῃ, οὗτος ἀνάθεμα ἔστω
[hOSTIS AN TOIAUTA PRATTHi, hOUTOS ANAQEMA
ESTW]
Normally the οὗτος [hOUTOS] isn't expressed,
but it is certainly implicit in the sense of
"the one" or "that person."
An example, Gal 1:9 ... εἴ τις ὑμᾶς
εὐαγγελίζεται παρ' ὃ παρελάβετε ἀνάθεμα ἔστω
[... EI TIS hUMAS EUAGGELIZETAI PAR' hO
PARELABETE, ANAQEMA ESTW]. Here I would say
there's an implicit demonstrative functioning
as the subject of ANAQEMA ESTW and that the
antecedent is the TIS of the conditional
clause.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
(ret)
On Sunday, December 21, 2008, at 11:13PM,
"Rod Rogers" <rngrogers at embarqmail.com>
wrote:
>Is it possible for the antecedent of an
>indefinite pronoun to be a definite pronoun?
>
>rod rogers
>Bargersville, In
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