[B-Greek] Antecedent of an indefinite pronoun

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Mon Dec 22 07:37:28 EST 2008


You might have stated what it is you have in mind -- a specific verse? 
I'm guessing something like this:

ὅστις ἂν τοιαύτα πράττῃ, οὗτος ἀνάθεμα ἔστω
[hOSTIS AN TOIAUTA PRATTHi, hOUTOS ANAQEMA ESTW]

Normally the οὗτος [hOUTOS] isn't expressed, but it is certainly implicit in the sense of "the one" or  "that person."
An example, Gal 1:9 ... εἴ τις ὑμᾶς εὐαγγελίζεται παρ' ὃ παρελάβετε ἀνάθεμα ἔστω [... EI TIS hUMAS EUAGGELIZETAI PAR' hO PARELABETE, ANAQEMA ESTW]. Here I would say there's an implicit demonstrative functioning as the subject of ANAQEMA ESTW and that the antecedent is the TIS of the conditional clause.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)

 
On Sunday, December 21, 2008, at 11:13PM, "Rod Rogers" <rngrogers at embarqmail.com> wrote:
>Is it possible for the antecedent of an
>indefinite pronoun to be a definite pronoun?
>
>rod rogers
>Bargersville, In


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