[B-Greek] Luke 2:11 and Cristoj
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Aug 20 07:36:21 EDT 2008
I would take both KURIOS and XRISTOS as nouns with XRISTOS being a proper noun. This is not unusual in the NT. Lk does it in Lk 24.3
.
εὗρον τὸ σῶμα τοῦ κυρίουἸησοῦ.
hEURON TO SWMA TOU KURIOU IHSOU
.
Also see Acts 15.11
.
Similarly Paul does it, e.g. in Rom 10.9
.
ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κύριονἸησοῦν
hOTI EAN hOMOLOGHSHiS EN TWi STOMATI SOU KURION IHSOUN
.
We also find this in James 1.1
.
Ἰάκωβος θεοῦ καὶ κυρίουἸησοῦΧριστοῦ δοῦλος
IAKWBOS QEOU KAI KURIOU IHSOU XRISTOU DOULOS
.
In the Apocalypse we find such a construction with reference to God
.
Ἐγώ εἰμι τὸ ἄλφα καὶ τὸ ὦ, λέγει κύριοςὁ θεός
"EGW EIMI TO ALFA KAI TO W", LEGEI KURIOS hO QEOS.
.
george
gfsomsel.
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death..
- Jan Hus
_________
----- Original Message ----
From: Kenneth Litwak <javajedi2 at yahoo.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Wednesday, August 20, 2008 1:58:54 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Luke 2:11 and Cristoj
In Luke 2:11, we read SWTHR (OS ESTIN CRISTOS KURIOS. BDAG says that cristos is an adjective in some texts, including the LXX, but only a noun "in our lit." (which makes me wonder what literature is encompassed by "our" but I digress). I am wondering about how this should be translated. Is there any established principle in Greek grammar that would lead one to try to take cristos as a noun or an adjective? Would it be customary to see two titles in a row like this, Messiah Lord, wiht no articles? I know that a noun can be definite without an article in Greek but I don't see a reason that this could not be "a savior who is the Messiah, the Lord" o "a savior who is the anointed Lord" among other choices. What rule would lead to the typical translation, "Christ the Lord," leaving aside the issue that no first-century person would have understood Cristos as "Christ." Thanks.
Ken Litwak
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