[B-Greek] Difference between Infinitive and finite clause

Randall Buth randallbuth at gmail.com
Wed May 2 18:45:42 EDT 2007


Mitch EGRAPSEN
> Col 2.1 starts...
>
> QELW GAR "hUMAS EIDENAI" HLIKON AGWNA ECW..
>
> Could the writer have done something like
>
> QELW GAR "hOTI hUMEIS OIDATE" HLIKON AGWNA ECW hUPER
> hUMWN... (remember, I said something like this :o )
>
> And if so, my question is: How does an Infinitive type
> of construct differ from a Finite kind?
>
> Mitch Larramore

This is the right kind of question to start understanding your Greek
between the lines.

First a minor correction: you would say
QELW gar INA EIDHTE ...

QELW prefers to go with INA

Secondly, the infinitive clause is considered 'streamlined', 'lighter'
and was the prefered ancient Greek complement to QELW 'want'. It
provides cohesion to a statement by implying a tighter semantic
connection and by signalling that a shortcut syntax is being used and
that less overall processing will be necessaary with the statement.

The INA clause was heavier through causing the repetition of
persons/subjects for which the language provided an optional, shorter
path. choosing such a structure could imply that extra complications
will require fuller, explicit specification in the statement.

The INA clause became the standard in later Byzantine Greek,
especially as the infinitive dropped out of use of the language.

NB: you may recognize the modern Greek result:  QELW  NA  fagw  "I
WANT THAT i eat"

ERRWSO
Randall Buth
-- 
Randall Buth, PhD
www.biblicalulpan.org
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