[B-Greek] "monon" - I Cor. 15:19

David A. Green jer2329 at preteristcosmos.com
Thu Mar 29 21:08:17 EST 2007


[Dave]
> > Paul's argument seems invalid to me if "monon" modifies the 
> > adverbial 
> > prepositional phrase "in this life."  If Paul was saying that 
> > believers were pitiable because they hoped in Christ "in this life 
> > only," then he would be implying that, in order not to be pitiable, 
> > Christians must continue to hope in Christ "in the next life" too.  
> > But that doesn't make sense.  Their hope was _fulfilled_ in 
> > the next life.  One does not continue to "hope" for something that 
> > is "seen" after "this life." (Rom. 8:24)
 
> HH:  First, I don't see why it is impossible for people to 
> hope in Christ even in eternity. We will continue to look to 
> him for all good. 
> In Rom 8:24 the hope is specified as the adoption of sons and 
> redemption of the body. That hope will be fulfilled at the 
> resurrection and so will no longer be a hope. But there can 
> be other things to hope for in Christ even in eternity, can't 
> there? 

But Paul was speaking _specifically_ of the hope of the resurrection of the
dead.  As you said, that hope does not continue "in the next life."  It is
"fulfilled."  Therefore, hoping for the resurrection "in this life only"
would be a normal and good thing.  From a theological standpoint then, it
does not seem that "monon" modifies the phrase "in this life."

[Dave]
> > It doesn't seem to
> > me that there is anything "pitiable" about hoping in Christ 
> "in this 
> > life only."  Also, Paul did not add the qualifier, "...if 
> the dead do not rise."
> > He did not say, "If in this life only we hoped in Christ 
> then we are 
> > pitiable _if the dead do not rise_."

> HH: This is a place where you really are mistaken. The whole 
> discussion assumes the hypothetical condition that Christ did 
> not rise and indeed that there is no resurrection of the dead 
> (vv. 12, 13, 15, 16). The hypothetical condition that Christ 
> did not rise appears in verses 14, 16, 17. The particle ARA 
> ("then") moves this hypothetical condition into verse 18, and 
> verse 19 continues it.

Here was Paul's reasoning.....

A. If there is no resurrection of the dead, then:
B. We have in this life hoped in Christ "only."

A. And if in this life we have hoped in Christ "only," then:
B. We are of all men most to be pitied.

The truth of the second A-B argument is not conditioned upon whether or not
there is a resurrection of the dead.  The argument is true all by itself.  

Paul was not implying:

C. Hoping in Christ in this life "only" is pitiable only if there is no
resurrection of the dead.

If someone were to argue like this:

A. If I get caught driving over the speed limit, then:
B. I will get a speeding ticket.  

A. And if I get a speeding ticket, then:
B. I will pay a fine.  

We would not conclude:

C. Getting a speeding ticket results in paying a fine only if I get caught
driving over the speed limit.   ????

> HH: You see, his resurrection was the matter in doubt in the 
> minds of the people about/to whom Paul was writing:

Christ's resurrection was not in doubt (I Cor. 15:1).  The resurrection of
the dead was in doubt.  There is no implication that anyone at Corinth
denied that Christ was raised from the dead.  What was being denied was that
Christ's resurrection was going to result in the resurrection of "those that
slept" (I Cor. 15:20).
 
Dave




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