[B-Greek] Hebrews 12:2

Melvin Bradford bradford.m at sbcglobal.net
Fri Mar 23 02:36:26 EST 2007


Can someone give the information concerning a good modern day Greek Grammar book to define the Aorist imperative and it's usage. The statment "imperative mood is regularly mishandled by exegetes" refers to me because I learned early in my studies the the aorist imperative meant "start/don't start doing" an action. Need help...


----- Original Message ----
From: Oun Kwon <kwonbbl at gmail.com>
To: "reznik1 at juno.com" <reznik1 at juno.com>
Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thursday, March 22, 2007 5:21:13 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Hebrews 12:2


On 3/22/07, reznik1 at juno.com <reznik1 at juno.com> wrote:
> Dear friends,
>
> I have a question on Heb 12:2:
> hOS ANTI THS PROKEIMENHS AUTW CARAS hUPEMEINEN STAURON
> In all English versions I see about the same translation of this phrase:
> "who for the joy set before Him endured the cross" (NASB). NLT even has "He was willing to die a shameful death on the cross because of the joy he knew would be his afterward".
> As I undersand, in the Greek text ANTI expresses the idea of the genetive of price, same as in Heb 12:16 about Esau selling his birthright FOR meal. Can anybody explain me, why all translators into English understand it as Jesus paid the price of His suffering to obtain joy afterword, and not as Jesus suffered on the cross INSTEAD OF having the joy He might have otherwise? That would be the same idea as with Moses in Heb 11 who preferred suffering with G-d's people instead of having pleasure with Egyptians, or in Phil 2:5-11 about Jesus who emptied Himself being obedient even to the point of the cross.
> BTW, two Russian translations have INSTEAD OF for ANTI.
> Thanks,
> Dmitriy Reznik
>
>
>
>

There is a problem with 'instead of joy'.
What joy would it refer to?

Phi 2:5-11 has nothing to do with His joy. It is about His nature and
relation to His Father.

Oun Kwon.
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