[B-Greek] Middle sense for separate Passive form
mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Wed Mar 21 22:39:19 EDT 2007
I honestly didn't have a particular verse in hand for
this question. I was trying to isolate Voice and form
(morphology) to understand what relationship existed
between these two, if this were doable.
I wondered why the Greeks did not see any reason to
distinguish Middle from Passive (by way of morphology)
in the Present, Imperfect, of Perfect tense. And if
morphology played ANY bearing on how a Greek
distinguished Middle from Passive, then they must have
developed two distinct methods, one for the Present,
Imperfect, and Perfect system, and one for the others.
And I thought I was getting somewhere until it was
pointed out to me that ALL E-SAMHN, SW, SATO... verbs
are Middle. It didn't make sense to me why the Greeks
decided that a distinction needed to be made between
the Middle and Passive IN THE AORIST ONLY. I really
think that before I look at particular examples, I
need to see what is going on behind the scenes and
what is the logic/rationale for there being a need to
make a special Aorist Middle (which is ONLY Middle),
and not make this distinction in ALL tenses. What in
the world does tense have to do with voice????
Sugar Land, Texas
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