[B-Greek] Single author as "we"

Jeffrey T. Requadt jeffreyrequadt_list at hotmail.com
Mon Mar 5 22:26:41 EST 2007


For what it's worth, here are A.T. Robertson's thoughts on the matter: I have tried to convert all the Greek to conform to B-Greek standards. I don't have all these resources, but he treats it at some length, especially the question of Paul's use. I think that those looking for examples outside the NT should probably follow Moulton as quoted below. If someone needs more information, I can possibly provide some (I use this in Logos, but not often enough to be familiar with the sources ATR uses).

6. The Literary Plural.  We have already mentioned the use of the plural in a kind of impersonal way to conceal one’s identity, as TEQHKASIN (Mt. 2:20), AITOUSIN (Lu. 12:20) and the general indefinite plural like hWS LEGOUSIN (Rev. 2:24). The critics disagree sharply about it (the literary plural). Blass flatly denies that we have any right to claim this literary plural in Paul’s Epistles because he associates others with himself in his letters. Winer insists that Paul often speaks in his apostolic character when he uses the plural and hence does not always include others. Moulton considers the matter settled in favour of the epistolary plural in the KOINE. He cites from the papyri several examples. So Tb.P. 26 (ii/b.c.) ONTI MOI EN PTOLEMAIDEI--PROSEPESEN hHMIN, B.U. 449 (ii–iii/a.d.) AKOUSAS hOTI NWQREUH ANWGIOUMEN, J. H. S. xix 92 (ii/a.d.) CAIRE MOI, MHTER GLUKUTATH, KAI FRWNTIZETE hHMWN. Dick has made an exhaustive study of the whole subject and produces parallels from late Greek that show how easily EGW and hHMEIS were exchanged. The matter can be clarified, I think. To begin with, there is no reason in the nature of things why Paul should not use the literary plural if he wished to do so. He was a man of culture and used to books even if he used the vernacular KOINE in the main. The late Greek writers did; the papyri show examples of it. G. Milligan (Thess., p. 132) cites Tb. P. 58 (ii/b.c.) EURHKAMEN--hEURON--BEBOULEUMEQA; P. Hib. 44 (iii/b.c.) EGRAYEN—hORWNTES—WIMHN; P. Heid. 6 (iv/a.d.) PISTEUOMEN—GRAFW KAI FLUARHSW; and an inscription, possibly a rescript of Hadrian, O. G. I. S 484, LOUMEN—[METEPEM-]YAMHN—BOULHQEIS—EDOXEN hHMEIN—EDOKIMASAMEN—EPISTEUON—hHGHSAMHN—NOMIZW. Besides, Blass admits that we have it in 1 Jo. 1:4, where GRAFWMEN does not differ in reality from GRAFW of 2:1. But in Jo. 21:24 OIDAMEN probably is in contrast to John, who uses OIMAI just below. In Jo. 1:14, as certainly in 1:16, others are associated with the writer. The author of Hebrews also uses the singular or plural according to the humour of the moment. Thus PEIQOMEQA—ECOMEN (13:18) and the next verse PARAKALW—APOKATASTAQW. Cf. also 6:1, 3, 9, 11, with 13:22 f. Now as to Paul. In Ro. 1:5 he has DI' hOU ELABOMEN CARIN KAI APOSTOLHN. Surely he is talking of no one else when he mentions APOSTOLHN. Blass overlooks this word and calls attention to CARIN as applicable to all. Then again in Col. 4:3 hHMIN is followed in the same verse by DEDEMAI. It is clear also in 1 Th. 2:18, HQELHSAMEN—EGW MEN PAULOS. But what really settles the whole matter is 2 Cor. 10:1–11:6. Paul is here defending his own apostolic authority where the whole point turns on his own personality. But he uses first the singular, then the plural. Thus PARAKALW (10:1), QARRW, LOGIZOMAI (10:2), STRATEUOMEQA (10:3), hHMEIS (10:7), KAUCHSWMAI, AISCUNQHSOMAI (10:8), DOXW (10:9), ESMEN (10:11), KAUCHSOMEQA (10:13), etc. It is not credible that here Paul has in mind any one else than himself. Cf. also 2 Cor. 2:14–7:16 for a similar change from singular to plural. The use of the literary plural by Paul sometimes does not, of course, mean that he always uses it when he has a plural. Each case rests on its own merits. Jesus seems to use it also in Jo. 3:11, hO OIDAMEN LALOUMEN KAI hO hEWRAKAMEN MARTUROUMEN. In Mk. 4:30 (PWS hOMOIWSWMEN THN BASILEIAN TOU QEOU;) Christ associates others with him in a very natural manner.

A.T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (Logos, 1919; 2006). 406-407.

-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Webb
Sent: Monday, March 05, 2007 11:42 AM
To: 'B Greek'
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Single author as "we"

Dear Kevin,
Thank you for the references to places where people have thought it was clear Paul was using the editorial "we". I can't say for sure, but I am willing to make an argument that even these are not editorial plurals.

In ?2 Cor 10:11, 13, he is talking on behalf of himself and Timothy (and possibly Titus also). They worked as an apostolic/missionary team in Corinth to found that church. And 2 Corinthians is explicitly from Paul and Timothy.

In Gal 1:8-9 he uses a plural in reference to things said when he and his apostolic/missionary team--made up of himself and Barnabas in the first instance and himself and Silas and Timothy in the second instance--were with them face to face; then he speaks on his own behalf in the current epistolary setting, saying "and I say to you".

In Romans 1:5 seems very possible that Paul has his an apostolic/missionary team in mind, given that Timothy sends his greeting at the end of the letter, and Paul calls him "my co-worker" (Rom. 16:21).

I agree that each of these looks like a reasonable candidate at least for an editorial "we". Are there any other instances you think are likely? 

Webb Mealy



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