[B-Greek] Single author as "we"
Brion Brooks
bjbrooks at gmnp.net
Mon Mar 5 10:44:43 EST 2007
Kevin -- this isn't directed to you in particular. It's more of an observation about this thread so far...
-----------
Maybe I'm wrong, but I thought the initial inquiry was whether there is actual proof that "we" meant "I", or whether it’s a supposition that's made because, well, that's how people seemed to write back then (a supposed stylistic rule, you might say).
The original question was: "How can it be determined (verified) that a single writer did use 'we'when he/she was the sole author?" I thought it was an interesting question. Perhaps it can't be answered; that's ok, too.
In any event, most of what I've seen, by way of response, has been: confirmation that the rule exists, affirmation that the rule is well respected, notes that the rule is nuanced, etc.
But what ever happened to the guy's original question (i.e., "how can [the rule] be determined (verified)")?
Brion Brooks
(NB: this is a professional hazard of mine; us attorneys love the phrase, "Mr. witness, would you please just answer the question?")
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Kevin
> W. Woodruff
> Sent: Monday, March 05, 2007 10:14 AM
> To: Eddie Mishoe; Mitch Larramore; B Greek
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Single author as "we"
>
> Eddie:
>
> I would disagree with you on this
>
> It is apparent from the the immediate context that 2 Cor
> 10:11, 13, Gal 1:8-9 and Romans 1:5 are epistolary "we's."
>
> Kevin
>
> Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div., M.S.I.S.
> Library Director/Reference Librarian, Assistant Professor of
> Bible, Greek, Theological Bibliography and Research Tennessee
> Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary, 1815 Union Ave.
> Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404, United States of America
> 423/493-4252 (office) 423/698-9447 (home) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
> Cierpke at prodigy.net http://pages.prodigy.net/cierpke/woodruff.htm
>
>
>
> ----- Original Message ----
> From: Eddie Mishoe <edmishoe at yahoo.com>
> To: Mitch Larramore <mitchlarramore at yahoo.com>; B Greek
> <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Monday, March 5, 2007 8:26:57 AM
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Single author as "we"
>
>
> Mitch:
>
> I'm not able to assess the "ancient writings" aspect of your
> question, and my view of the NT is not that of a scholar, but
> I've never accepted as true the idea that Paul wrote using
> the plural "we."
>
> To me, in every instance in the NT, when a plural "we"
> is used within a letter, it always denotes a team or group.
> Add to that the normal circumstance that within that group
> some individual would usually wrote FOR THE GROUP.
>
> Note in Romans 16:22. Tertius says "I" Tertius greet you. So,
> here, although he wrote Romans for Paul (who also has Tertius
> write "I" for Paul), he uses himself in the first person,
> while not doing the same for Timothy and the others in the
> previous verse.
>
> One commentary I'm reading on the book of Hebrews [that uses
> both singular and plural for the authors] suggests that
> Barnabas and Apollos together were responsible for the book
> of Hebrews, with Barnabas as the actual/lead writer (for both
> of them). Hence, Barnabas will use the singular (himself
> only) and plural (Barnabas and Apollos) within the same letter.
>
> To me, every "we" is a "we." And every "I" is an "I."
>
>
> Eddie Mishoe
> Pastor
>
>
>
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