[B-Greek] Single author as "we"

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Sun Mar 4 20:47:32 EST 2007


I ran across this statement while reading:

"It was common for an ancient writer to write using
the plural pronoun 'we.'" (I've run across comments
like this previously, and as here with this
commentary, never have I seen examples listed.)

How can it be determined (verified) that a single
writer did use 'we' when he/she was the sole author?
It seems circular reasoning in some sense unless
undisputed ancient examples abound. Do they? (I note
that because this phenomenon is assumed, that
christian writers today do this, but I'm wondering if
we've misunderstood this idea.)

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas


 
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