[B-Greek] PNEUMATON ESTIN?
fjanzen at gmx.net
Thu Aug 23 01:30:21 EDT 2007
Every occurence of PNEUMATON has its accompanying words in the plural;
is there a reason for the verb in Revelation 1:4 to be in the singular
(ESTIN)? If it is in the singular in Greek, why do most (or all)
translations have the verb in the plural? Could we miss some theological
aspect by having it in the plural? It would sound awkward to have it in
the singular, but wouldn't it be more accurate to have the verb in the
Thank you for clarifications!
Pastor Fridolin Janzen
Translating the NT into Portuguese
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