[B-Greek] Object of verbs
mrfox1 at gmail.com
Wed Aug 30 11:49:28 EDT 2006
Thanks for the reply. I was unclear in my question. What I really wanted to
know is: "How did the writers of the dictionaries decide that a verb takes
its object in the dative case?" and "How did the writers of the dictionaries
decide that a verb takes its object in the genitive case?"
I appreciate you patience with my unclear questions.
Yours in His service,
Marion R. Fox
On 8/30/06, George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com> wrote:
> I rather hesitate to tell someone to rely on English in order to
> understand what is going on in Greek, but in this case it frequently works.
> In a number of Greek verbs which take a dative object there is some
> relationship involved (note that these are simplistic definitions):
> PROSKARTEREW -- to be faithful TO someone
> PREPW -- to be pleasing or suitable TO someone
> ECESTIN -- it is authorized or proper FOR someone
> PROSERXOMAI -- to move TOWARDS someone, something
> And, as Yul Brynner continually said in "The King and I" "Et cetera, et
> cetera, et cetera."
> Other than that, all I can say is "Look it up in the dictionary."
> *Marion Fox <mrfox1 at gmail.com>* wrote:
> How do we know when the object of a verb is in a case other than the
> accusative case? For example, some verbs take their objects in the dative
> case, some in the genitive case.
> Marion Fox
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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