[B-Greek] John 1:18 Direct Discourse?
jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Fri Aug 11 23:54:23 EDT 2006
Thanks alot Harold, I appreciate your patience with me and I apologize
if I insulted you by not accepting your insights.
In a book published by Hendrickson Publishers entitled, "A Dictionary of Early
Christian Biography," on pg.777, end of the first paragraph in the right column, in Origen's biography, it says, and I quote:
"Perhaps it is not less charateristic that he blames those who like Heracleon, hold
that John 1:16-18 are the words of the evangelist and not the Baptist."
Now, assuming Origen's position that John 1:18 contains the words of John the
baptist, wouldn't this fit under the category of direct discourse? and thereby allow for
theos to be understood as the topic of the only begotten's declaration?
Also, in the Interlinear that I own (Nestale Aland, translated by Alford D. Lit.) the
translation underneath eugaletos says, and I quote:
Without understanding theos, and thus ekeinos, as the noun (and pronoun) being
declared doesn't this leave John 1:18 as an incomplete sentence without any stated
topic of the Son's declaration at all? Thus causing the translator to write [?him]????
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