[B-Greek] SIGATW in 1 Cor 14:30
kline-dekooning at earthlink.net
Tue Sep 27 13:20:28 EDT 2005
On Sep 27, 2005, at 4:03 AM, Kimmo Huovila wrote:
> If Greek literature avoids aorist imperatives of
> this verb, it means that the present would be the unmarked choice
> even in
> cases one already talks, and then the case is as you suggested: we
> read much anything into the verb form.
I understand your point but what if the command "to be silent" is
semantically a call to enter a state of silence and remain in that
state? In this is the case then the present is preferable to the
aorist. It seems a little brash to throw out the semantic
significance of the present on the basis of the statistics of one word.
> Does anyone have means to get any statistics about the ratio
> between aorist
> and present imperatives of SIGAW in Greek literature (wider than
> just NT &
> Homer)? Any examples of aorist imperatives?
I found about 25 citations for SIGHSON. I am sending them to you off
list in a .pdf file.
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