[B-Greek] 1John 2:27 - Indicative or Imperative
Gary & Lynn O'Neal
goneal at intop.net
Thu Sep 22 12:41:03 EDT 2005
I have been lurking on the list for several years now and appreciate the insights into the Greek language provided. I am a pastor and am attempting to keep my Greek up-to-date.
I have a question about the tense of MENETE in 1 John 2:27
KAI hUMEIS TO CRISMA hO ELABETE AP' AUTOU MENEI EN hUMIN, KAI OU CREIAN ECETE hINA TIS DIDASKHi hUMAS, ALL' hWS TO AUTOU CRISMA DIDASKEI hUMAS PERI PANTWN, KAI ALHQES ESTIN KAI OUK ESTIN YEUDOS, KAI KAQWS EDIDAXEN hUMAS, MENETE EN AUTWi.
Grammatically, this could be either an Imperative or an Indicative. Wescott took it as an indicative, parallel to MENEI earlier in the verse. Marshall (in NICNT), disputed this and said that it must be an imperative, but he does not provide his reason. Does he base this on some aspect of grammar, or is this his opinion based upon the context?
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