[B-Greek] KURIAKOS vs KURIOU?
jeffsmelser at ntgreek.net
Sat Sep 17 00:38:52 EDT 2005
Does anyone else have any further comments on below? I'm still
Well, I can ramble a bit and talk about what others have said...
Smyth noted that many denominatives (i.e., adjectives formed from a noun
stem or adverb; a.k.a. "secondary," which is the term Smyth will use
below) formed by the addition of the suffix KO, AKO, or IKO (add the
final sigma for the masculine nom. sing.) "denote relation, many others
fitness or ability." (858.6)
Metzger mentions specifically the 3rd of these and characterizes such
adjectives as meaning "belonging to," "pertaining to," or "with the
characteristics of." He gives examples in -IKOS, including BASIL-IKOS
("belonging to a king, kingly, royal"), PNEUMAT-IKOS ("pertaining to the
spirit, with the characteristics of the spirit, spiritual"), SARK-IKOS
("fleshly, carnal"), and SOMAT-IKOS ("pertaining to the body, bodily").
I think of KURIAKOS as being similar. But Smyth mentioned KURIAKOS
specifically in section 864.1 - "IAKO: secondary, in KUR-IAKO-S of the
Lord." He treated the suffix as including the iota, apparently reckoning
the adjective to be derived from the noun KUROS rather than from its
heir, KURIOS. I had guessed the adj. is from KURIOS and the suffix is
-AKOS rather than -IAKOS. But then one of my guesses and several dollars
will get you a gallon of gasoline. Go with Smyth. (But I'd still like to
hear Carl's thoughts on that point.)
In any event, to me it seems safe to say the suffix indicates a
relational idea similar to that seen in adjectives in -IKOS, and the
"pertaining to" or "belonging to" idea seems to work especially well for
As to why the choice of KURIAKOS rather than a genitive construction
using the noun KURIOU, I'd suggest that even though there is some
latitude in interpreting the significance of the adjectival suffix, the
relationship is somewhat more specifically characterized thereby than by
the genitive case form, which is used for ideas as widely divergent as
kind, source, possession, etc. Hence the adjective was well suited to
designate a day that was specially the Lord's, and to designate the
supper particularly pertaining to the Lord and eaten on that day.
>>From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
>>[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of craig
>>Sent: Monday, 12 September 2005 8:35 AM
>>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>>Subject: [B-Greek] KURIAKOS vs KURIOU?
>>Recently I looked up either 1 Cor 11:20 or Rev 1:10 and was
>>surprised to find out "Lord's" was actually KURIAKOS instead
>>of just KURIOU. More surprised to find it only occurred in
>>those two places, and I don't think ever in LXX.
>>I don't think the entry in BAGD was that extensive. I'm
>>wondering if anyone else can shed some light on the
>>significance of KURIAKOS, and how it is distinct from simple
>>genitive use of KURIOS? What information about this word
>>might be relevant to understanding Paul's and John's
>>selection over KURIOU?
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