[B-Greek] Question about Strong's #3709
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at ioa.com
Fri Sep 16 19:34:06 EDT 2005
On Sep 16, 2005, at 7:19 PM, RAY MARTINEZ wrote:
> Hi Everyone:
> I am in the midst of writing an article about Romans 1:17-25 and
> the only bit of Greek grammar that I need to incorporate into the
> article is what "orge"/wrath is in the grammar.
> According to Dr. Gene Scott Ph.D. Stanford University, [oral
> teaching, January 2001] "orge" is a "present tense verb", HOWEVER
> the paper attachment 'hand-out' by Dr. Scott to everyone present at
> the lecture indicates the word in question is "N-NF-S" (whatever
> that means).
> Question: Did Dr. Scott mis-speak or what ?
> PLEASE someone tell me about orge and what it is in the grammar and
> try to rectify it against what Dr. Scott said.
ORGH in Rom 1:17 is a noun; what N-NF-S means is Noun nominative
feminine singular, which is exactly what the word is in that text.
You give the impression that you have no direct knowledge of Greek;
participation in discussion on this list is based upon an assumption
that one is at least in the initial stages of learning Greek. ORGH is
a noun in Rom 1:17; the root in that noun appears also in a verbal
form ORGIZOMAI, but that verb does not appear in this text at all --
nor in any Pauline text.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
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